Evaluation And Management And Anesthesia Coding

Please answer all 20 questions correctly and get back to me within the next 3 hours

1.   Modifier -P5 indicates that the patient

A. experienced postoperative anemia.
B. is not expected to survive without the operation.
C. received a lower anesthesia dosage.
D. is advanced in age.

2.   Code 99217 is assigned for

A. nursing home services.
B. observation discharge services.
C. established patient visits.
D. new patient office visits.

3.   Code range 99218–99220 denotes

A. emergency room visits.
B. initial hospital visits.
C. initial observation care.
D. follow-up hospital visits.

4.   A physician performs an invasive surgical procedure. Prior to the start of the procedure, the anesthesiologist administers monitored anesthesia. Which modifier should be appended to the anesthesia code?

A. -G10
B. -G8
C. -G1
D. -G9

5.   When more than one surgery is performed during one anesthesia administration, the coder should

A. report the anesthesia code with the highest base value unit.
B. assign modifier -QS to the second surgery code.
C. assign add-on code 01900 to indicate more than one surgery was performed during a single operative session.
D. add modifier -QY to the first surgery code.

6.   Modifier -P3 indicates that the patient

A. received topical anesthesia.
B. is in a coma.
C. received local anesthesia.
D. has severe systemic disease.

7.   ___ modifiers indicate the number of anesthesia cases being directed at one time.

A. Coordinated time
B. Conversion
C. Calculation
D. Concurrent

8.   A coder adds modifier -P2 to an anesthesia code. This modifier indicates the patient

A. is allergic to lidocaine.
B. received general anesthesia.
C. is handicapped.
D. has mild systemic disease.

9.   The risk of morbidity or mortality would be considered as a part of

A. review of systems.
B. medical decision-making.
C. history of present illness.
D. chief complaint.

10.   A patient who has not been seen by a physician or another physician in the same group within the last three years is a/an _______ patient.

A. established
B. new
C. emergent
D. existing

11.   The dollar rate of each anesthesia unit is called the _______ factor.

A. unit conversion
B. conversion
C. calculation
D. base value unit rate

12.   A patient who has been admitted to a hospital is a/an

A. inpatient.
B. established patient.
C. new patient.
D. ambulatory surgery patient.

13.   A patient undergoes an esophagogastric tamponade with a balloon. How would this procedure be coded?

A. 43460
B. 00500
C. 43460-P1
D. 00500-P1

14.   Codes in the range of 99224–99226 represent services for

A. critical care services.
B. subsequent observations.
C. consultations.
D. initial observations.

15.   Which of the following code ranges are add-on codes reported for prolonged physician services?

A. 99458–99586, 99372
B. 99212–99252, 99344
C. 99673–99873, 99001
D. 99354–99357, 99359

16.   A patient who has been treated by a physician or another physician in the same group within the last three years is a/an _______ patient.

A. emergent
B. new
C. transmitted
D. established

17.   Modifier -QY indicates that

A. anesthesia administration was abruptly terminated due to surgical complications.
B. the surgeon is administering anesthesia.
C. the physician is supplying topical anesthesia only.
D. an anesthesiologist is directing the CRNA during anesthesia administration.

18.   _______ circumstance codes are used in situations that increase the difficulty of administering anesthesia.

A. UNIT administration modification
B. Extenuating
C. ASA relativity
D. Qualifying

19.   Other nursing facility services would be reported with code

A. 99305.
B. 99318.
C. 99525.
D. 99211.

20.   A patient undergoes a pacemaker insertion. She is not expected to survive if she doesn’t have the operation. What code should be reported?

A. 00530-P4
B. 33206-P4
C. 00530-P1
D. 33208-P2

 

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